Confused: 1:200 levarage, 1 lot costs $800 ?!?!

 

I have a demo account with FXCM.

I built a simple script with the code:

int start()
  {
//----
      double One_Lot=MarketInfo(Symbol(),MODE_MARGINREQUIRED);//!-lot cost
      double Min_Lot=MarketInfo(Symbol(),MODE_MINLOT);// Min. amount of lots
      double Step   =MarketInfo(Symbol(),MODE_LOTSTEP);//Step in volume changing
      double Free   =AccountFreeMargin();
      
      Print("One Lot Cost: ", One_Lot);
      Print("Minimum Lots: ", Min_Lot);
      Print("Lot step: ", Step);
      Print("Free Margin: ", Free);
      Print("Account #",AccountNumber(), " leverage is ", AccountLeverage());
      
//----
   return(0);
  }

Result was:

2012.01.15 05:14:00 Broker_Conditions EURUSD,M15: Account #2048248436 leverage is 200
2012.01.15 05:14:00 Broker_Conditions EURUSD,M15: Free Margin: 50472
2012.01.15 05:14:00 Broker_Conditions EURUSD,M15: Lot step: 0.01
2012.01.15 05:14:00 Broker_Conditions EURUSD,M15: Minimum Lots: 0.01
2012.01.15 05:14:00 Broker_Conditions EURUSD,M15: One Lot Cost: 800

If leverage is for example 1:100 then 1 lot (which is 100,000), would require $1000 in the account!

So with a leverage of 1:200 it should require only $500, and yet the result I get from:

MarketInfo(Symbol(),MODE_MARGINREQUIRED);

...is $800!!!

Could someone please explain to me why that is? What am I missing here?


Thank you for your time!!!


Kind Regards,

nanquan

 
You're buying Euro's and 1-Euro does not cost 1-Dollar.
 
So how is the cost of 1 lot calculated then?
 
It's explained here.
 
ubzen:
It's explained here.
With the caveat
MODE_TICKVALUE returns one-point value in the deposit currency.
is wrong.
 

Thank you for the link, ubzen!

@WHRoeder: could you please mention specifically what is wrong with that? I tried the link you provided but it's so long I didn't know where to look for the answer... Thanks! :)

Reason: